Hello,

in our house from 1974, we have a bathroom on the upper floor that was reportedly renovated in 2002 and in a "professional" manner. Now, we have replaced the windows in the house and experience a mold odor in the bathroom. I have also removed the trims around the bathroom door and can then through the "gap" against the frame ascertain that there are double layers of tiles on the walls. The question is therefore whether one can really say that it is done "professionally" or "according to the regulations at the time."

I have taken out a 5-year buyer's liability insurance on the house and am therefore reporting it now to Anticimex. My wife suggests that the smell became prominent after we replaced the windows in the house (and also in the bathroom), but since we have always kept the window open since then, I find it hard to see that it could be the cause?

The fact is that we mainly do not use the bathroom for showering, we have one in the basement, and it's only occasionally that the children bathe in the bathtub there, and it is always very careful not to splash water on the floor and to wipe it up if anything does end up there. So, there is not a high moisture load.

Anyone with similar experiences?

Buggaren
 
What do you mean by renovated? Moreover, you can do whatever you want when renovating, it just depends on how you think the insurance companies will react in the event of damage.
However, if you want compensation for damage, the bathroom should be built according to the rules that were in effect when the work was done.
 
Hi, by renovated I mean that it meets the standards that applied to wet rooms at the relevant time, i.e., if the bathroom was renovated in 2002, it should meet the standards that were in place at that time. I know that later regulations for things like penetrations have been introduced (I think), but as I said, I mean the requirements of that time. I know you can renovate a bathroom any way you want, but then you can't really say that it meets the standards for wet rooms?

Buggaren
 
It might be that the renovation in 2002 only involved putting new tiles over the old ones! In that case, you might have a construction with just masonite boards as the base for the old tiles. So, no waterproofing! The new tighter window might cause different ventilation than before in the bathroom, which is why you might now smell mold.
 
Has the seller said that and can you prove that it was stated that the bathroom met the requirements applicable back in 2002?
If it is the case that there is double tiling, you can also see it at the light switch by the door, and then one can ask the question if an inspection was carried out in connection with the purchase. There are more places to check to see if it has been done correctly, for example, the floor drain. A bathroom with double tiling can never meet any rules other than those that applied when the first layer was installed.
 
...and it is also in the inspection report that Anticimex prepared when I signed my buyer's liability insurance... the seller has said that in the basement bathroom it is "possible that they put tiles on top of the old ones, but in the upstairs bathroom it was done properly...". So it's quite waterproof (?), if one is to be a bit humorous. In that case, it's a matter of mold that was built in during previous renovations and is now becoming apparent....

I have understood through my realtor that the seller has signed seller's liability insurance, possibly considering this among other things... then the seller can't deceive their insurance company too much either... but that's not something I have to deal with...

Buggaren

Buggaren
 
The issue with the mold needs to be investigated further so that you know for sure where it is coming from. However, the bathroom does not conform with reality and should lead to costs for the seller to ensure that it meets the standard he claims it should. Namely, the one that applied in 2002.
 
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