N nauleem #1 Member · Västra Götalands · 140 posts 8 Jun 2025 at 5:33 PM nauleem Member Västra Götalands 140 posts 8 Jun 2025 at 5:33 PM #1 I read somewhere on the forum that if a beam's height is to be decreased by 25%, then the width must be increased by 100%. Ex 1x 145x45 can be replaced with 2x 120x45 and maintain the same strength properties. Is this correct? #beam #beams
I read somewhere on the forum that if a beam's height is to be decreased by 25%, then the width must be increased by 100%. Ex 1x 145x45 can be replaced with 2x 120x45 and maintain the same strength properties. Is this correct?
kashieda #2 Smart alek · Örebro län · 6 104 posts 8 Jun 2025 at 6:53 PM kashieda Smart alek Örebro län 6,104 posts 8 Jun 2025 at 6:53 PM #2 The moment of inertia, which can be used to calculate deflection, for a rectangular beam is b*h^3/12. A reduction of 25% is thus 0.75^3, around 42% of the original. Doubling does not quite give the same as the original's resistance to bending.
The moment of inertia, which can be used to calculate deflection, for a rectangular beam is b*h^3/12. A reduction of 25% is thus 0.75^3, around 42% of the original. Doubling does not quite give the same as the original's resistance to bending.
T Testarn #3 Member · Stockholm · 2 581 posts 30 Jun 2025 at 10:44 AM Testarn Member Stockholm 2,581 posts 30 Jun 2025 at 10:44 AM #3 120/145 = 0.8275.... so it is not 75% but rather 82% and (120/145)^3 = 0.5668... I believe that two 120 mm planks will correspond to a 145 mm plank quite well. Edit: Now I read a bit more carefully, and the original question was 75% of the origin... while the example was something else...
120/145 = 0.8275.... so it is not 75% but rather 82% and (120/145)^3 = 0.5668... I believe that two 120 mm planks will correspond to a 145 mm plank quite well. Edit: Now I read a bit more carefully, and the original question was 75% of the origin... while the example was something else...